Luk 4:17 And the scroll of the prophet Isaiah was given to him. He unrolled the scroll and found the place where it was written,
Luk 4:18 "The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he has anointed me to proclaim good news to the poor. He has sent me to proclaim liberty to the captives and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty those who are oppressed,
Luk 4:19 to proclaim the year of the Lord's favor."
Luk 4:20 And he rolled up the scroll and gave it back to the attendant and sat down. And the eyes of all in the synagogue were fixed on him.
Luk 4:21 And he began to say to them, "Today this Scripture has been fulfilled in your hearing."
Note that the Lord stops at "to proclaim the year of the Lord's favor." in the text in Luke, above.
Isa 61:1 The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me, because the LORD has anointed me to bring good news to the poor; he has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to those who are bound;
Isa 61:2 to proclaim the year of the LORD's favor, and the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all who mourn;
Isa 61:3 to grant to those who mourn in Zion-- to give them a beautiful headdress instead of ashes, the oil of gladness instead of mourning, the garment of praise instead of a faint spirit; that they may be called oaks of righteousness, the planting of the LORD, that he may be glorified.
However, in Isaiah he on goes to "and the day of vengeance of our God".
Why does he stop? Well, because the day of vengeance was not yet. So we see that prophecy has a time element to it that is not always contiguous. Was the day of vengeance AD 70. I don't think so, I think it refers to the 'day of the Lord' that is coming. Whichever of these is correct, there is a time interval and the Lord's clear use of it, from his own mouth, confirms that prophecy cannot always be compartmentalised to refer to just one specific fulfillment time/era.